Why did the Apostle Matthew say in the genealogy sequence: “Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham” (Matt. 1:1); and mentioned David firstly, although Abraham precedes David as regards time?

Why did the Apostle Matthew say in the genealogy sequence: “Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham” (Matt. 1:1); and mentioned David firstly, although Abraham precedes David as regards time?

Saint John Chrysostom said about that:

“He mentioned David firstly, because he was prominent in the mouths of all the people at that time, in view of his dignity, and his majesty, and also because he was more recent in time.

Thus they said: “Has not the Scripture said that the Christ comes from the seed of David and from the town of Bethlehem , where David was?” (John 7:42).

Nobody called Him the son of Abraham, but they called Him the son of David…because of his kingdom, and because they honored the kings who reigned after him.

And God said to Solomon: “Nevertheless I will not do it in your days, for the sake of your father David; I will tear it out of the hand of your son.” (1 Kings 11:12).”

We note also what the angel said in his annunciation to the Holy Virgin of the birth of Christ:

“He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Highest; and the Lord God will give Him the throne of His father David. And He will reign over the house of Jacob forever, and of His kingdom there will be no end.” (Luke 1: 32:33).